FungiUg
Waves at Cats
- Joined
- Nov 20, 2001
- Posts
- 10,242
Okay, one of you evil bastards own up... who decided that the word "dominant" only refers to males? I mean, there's nothing in the word that implies that.
It's not contradictory to have a female dominant, nor is it over explanatory to have a male dominant. So why is there an assumption that if I refer to a "Dom" (as an abbreviation of dominant) that I am refering to a male? Why must I type the abomination of "Dom/me" to be inclusive? If I wanted to be exclusive, I would write "male dom" or even "male dominant"
On the flip side we have submissive. Fortunately, they seem to be okay. A submissive can be male or female, so it is joyfully non-exclusive.
So why oh why do we have to go on thinking that Doms must be male?
It's not contradictory to have a female dominant, nor is it over explanatory to have a male dominant. So why is there an assumption that if I refer to a "Dom" (as an abbreviation of dominant) that I am refering to a male? Why must I type the abomination of "Dom/me" to be inclusive? If I wanted to be exclusive, I would write "male dom" or even "male dominant"
On the flip side we have submissive. Fortunately, they seem to be okay. A submissive can be male or female, so it is joyfully non-exclusive.
So why oh why do we have to go on thinking that Doms must be male?