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Lucifer_Carroll said:"if we do X, will Y happen?" "what mechanics make Y happen?" "how can we modify it to produce Z instead?"
Sub Joe said:Galileo is often cited as the first modern scientist, although I think he was just part of the spirit of the times.
Originally posted by Pure
As to Joe W.
I do see where that's coming from, and early on, the 'natural philosophers' and 'philosophers of nature' did some investigation, or at least 'thought experiment.' I also agree that philosophy is 'inquiry' that aims at understanding, and sometimes 'truth.'
That's an overlap with science. BUT I don't see scientific method as a 'subset of what was...philosophical practice.' At least on the current scene (century). The philosopher is more like the mathematician, in that the 'objects' are not those of the scientist. They can be probed, yes, but they can also be invented or spruced up. For instance the philosopher Peirce 'investigated' *abduction,* a method of reasoning. In a sense he was inventing. A mathematician *invented* complex numbers (or pulled them down from the Platonic realm).
Except for the new particle physicists, I don't see science as able to 'invent' the objects of investigation. The scientist (at least the 'natural scientist') must look at what's there.** (Of course a industrial chemist can--and did-- come up with 'nylon'; there are 'materials' specialists looking for new alloys. I don't see that a *basic* science. The issue of the properties of nylon is not so basic as the properties of water.)
Likewise I don't think that "experimental confirmation" (Joe's phrase) is relevant to what most philosophers are doing. John Rawl's theory of justice does not stand or fall on 'evidence,' as does Einstein's theory of gravitation.
Supporting this analysis is the fact that a minority of philosophers are deeply versed in any science. Paul and Patricia Churchland, as philosophers of mind and epistemologists actually spent time learning brai- and neuroscience, but they are the exception. Occasionally a philosopher acquaints himself with a subject in order to get to an interesting analysis, but that's not the same.
In one sense then, the philosopher is generally NOT oriented to the world, at least the world of senses, and scientific measurement (matter), nor to 'experiment' or even 'the test of experience.'
In almost NO case can you take a philosopher's article, book, or even a posting of Joe Wordsworth, and check into *facts* and refute it. Except for weird claims about the pineal gland, Descartes' philosophy cannot be attacked in the science laboratory; mind/body dualism is not scientifically refutable, and maybe not even a scientific position (a claim falling within science).
In a different sense, the moral philosophers are oriented toward the world in terms of 'what is the right thing to do.' But that again is NOT like a scientific project of 'finding the right way to split the atom' or 'the right way to understand the process in the interior of the sun.'
The philosopher can't fail, except by committing errors of conceptual clarity and reasoning. If s/he says "The right thing is never to abort a fetus, and here are the reasons" then NO evidence is relevant, and no poll, even one saying "90% of persons think it's sometimes right" can be used to refute. A scientist with a wrong idea about how to proceed in science is easily refuted, at least in principle, and can be forced to abandon a line of inquiry/intervention: i.e., the atom does not split; cold fusion does not happen.

Originally posted by Pure
I think it's true of only a small part of philosophy since Descartes, though there is clearly *relevance* of human experience. Since I cant pursue the matter this evening, I'd ask Joe to list 10-15 of the classics of 20th century philosophy. Then we will see if indeed, evidence could be gathered which would refute them.