A question for the medically-minded

BustyTheClown

Literotica Guru
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Jan 15, 2002
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My uncle always complains that coffee makes him urinate frequently. That makes me think of how, when I drink something -- anything, especially water or milk -- I almost immediately feel the need to urinate. Now, I'm not a med student, but there is no way in hell liquids can go through the system and be diluted in the kidneys that quickly, so here's my question: is the immediate need to urinate after drinking something just an "instinct" wherein the bladder empties itself to make room for the incoming liquid?

I know this is a stupid question, and the more I type, the more certain I am that that is precisely what is happening, but I want to ask anyway... Thanks for bearing with my stupidity, lol.
 
Drink/Pee

Coffee contains caffine which is a diuretic (pardon the spelling) as does most cola drinks this means that you will pee a greater volume than that ingested.

Taking on fluids depends entirly on your bodies need to absorb the fluids. After sports for example you will retain fluids because you have sweated off the fluids you are replacing.

If you do not need fluids them the body will process these and expell them the spped it uses is not known to me.

Cheers,


Mike
:devil:
 
Ahh, thank you! That is all I needed to know. Hijackers, if you're interested in this thread, you have my permission to do your work. Either that, or bury it. Or whatever.
 
And why, exactly, did this thread make me need to tinkle?

Tinkle, tinkle
Little star....
 
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