A Grammatical Conundrum

Two pages in just over 12 hours. Are we heading for a silliness record?
 
Isn't it "used to?"
Not for everyone. I've noticed 'use to' being used several times by literate content providers. It's becoming a more common usage as fewer people enunciate and reflect this pronunciation in their writing.
 
Not for everyone. I've noticed 'use to' being used several times by literate content providers. It's becoming a more common usage as fewer people enunciate and reflect this pronunciation in their writing.
You've assumed content providers have high literacy in the first place. I'd have said there's a great dumbing down, overall.
 
You've assumed content providers have high literacy in the first place. I'd have said there's a great dumbing down, overall.
Journalists/columnists/commentators, who earn a significant proportion of their income from providing content for the online offerings of all newspapers and TV channels, comprise the literate classes. They may only say 'for fuck's sake', perfectly enunciated, at dinner parties to earn street-cred, but other linguistic changes like 'use to' instead of 'used to' are more insidious. I grieve the passing of the correct usage of 'you', 'thee' and 'thou'. Sometimes it's not dumbing down, but growing old, remembering how things used to be, and no longer being willing to embrace change.
 
For fuck's sake.

Find an analogy:

For Pete's sake. It's not "For Pete Sake" or "For Petes Sake."

For Heaven's sake.

Same idea, only you substitute the irreverent and obscene "fuck" for those other words.
This is the right answer.

"Fuck" stands in for "Pete."
 
Is there a right answer???
Or just different perspectives, views and opinions?????
 
Not for everyone. I've noticed 'use to' being used several times by literate content providers. It's becoming a more common usage as fewer people enunciate and reflect this pronunciation in their writing.
I’ve never seen that. Is it merely an “alternate” (i.e., incorrect) spelling of ‘used to’, or does it include the rather obvious change in meaning?

Because if it’s the latter, then I see no issues with it. ‘Used to’ is for describing past habits; it’s pretty natural to then incorporate ‘use to’ for describing present habits.

If it’s the former, though, then the appropriate response is the same as to someone writing ‘should of’ — point and laugh.
 
I’ve never seen that. Is it merely an “alternate” (i.e., incorrect) spelling of ‘used to’, or does it include the rather obvious change in meaning?

Because if it’s the latter, then I see no issues with it. ‘Used to’ is for describing past habits; it’s pretty natural to then incorporate ‘use to’ for describing present habits.

If it’s the former, though, then the appropriate response is the same as to someone writing ‘should of’ — point and laugh.
I'm sure you wouldn't.

'used to' is historically used for both past and present habitual practices - 'I used to (go)' ...' and 'I am used to (going)' = 'I habitually went ... 'I habitually go'.

If you were creating a character who you'd point at and laugh on account of his different (to yours) literacy, would you render their speech as 'should've' or 'should of'? Which, and why?

Purpose and context.
 
‘used to' is historically used for both past and present habitual practices - 'I used to (go)' ...' and 'I am used to (going)' = 'I habitually went ... 'I habitually go'.
I should be saying that I can’t believe that I have to point out things that are this obvious but alas, this is by far not the first time that my ESL ass has to explain to English speakers their own native language.

“I used to go there every day.” is an active form, past tense, and refers to past habits.
“I am used to going there every day.” is a passive form, present tense, and refers to current habits.
The proposed “I use to go there every day.” is an active form, present tense, and I posit that it could refer to current habits as well.

These are all different forms of the verb “to use.”

If you were creating a character who you'd point at and laugh on account of his different (to yours) literacy, would you render their speech as 'should've' or 'should of'? Which, and why?
Illiteracy is exhibited in writing, not speech. Other characters wouldn’t hear the purported’ illiterate’ “should of”, so there’s no need for me to render it as anything other than universally readable and correct “should’ve”.
 
“I used to go there every day.” is an active form, past tense, and refers to past habits.
“I am used to going there every day.” is a passive form, present tense, and refers to current habits.
The proposed “I use to go there every day.” is an active form, present tense, and I posit that it could refer to current habits as well.

These are all different forms of the verb “to use.”
"I use to go there every day" is grammatically wrong. "Used to" acts like a modal verb, which is why people sometimes call it "semi-modal."

There is also no form like "had used to."
 
"I use to go there every day" is grammatically wrong.
Correct, it is considered wrong; that's why I marked it as "proposed", with a meaning that could at least make some sense. Treating it as a straight synonym to "used to" (or 'alternate spelling') is not just incorrect, but also nonsensical.
 
I should be saying that I can’t believe that I have to point out things that are this obvious but alas, this is by far not the first time that my ESL ass has to explain to English speakers their own native language.

“I used to go there every day.” is an active form, past tense, and refers to past habits.
“I am used to going there every day.” is a passive form, present tense, and refers to current habits.
The proposed “I use to go there every day.” is an active form, present tense, and I posit that it could refer to current habits as well.

These are all different forms of the verb “to use.”


Illiteracy is exhibited in writing, not speech. Other characters wouldn’t hear the purported’ illiterate’ “should of”, so there’s no need for me to render it as anything other than universally readable and correct “should’ve”.
Calm down. I wasn't pointing at you and laughing. You explained nothing that everyone didn't already know.

The use is not 'proposed', it's a use which is current and appears to be increasingly common - rendering 'used to' as 'use to' in speech and writing. No one has to propose changes in usage; they appear and proliferate with no guiding hand. That it has spread to the assumptively literate classes, those who write for a living, is surprising.

Other characters hear nothing, they're figments of the authors imagination. The task of the author is to write the dialogue of each character in such a way that the READER hears each character's different mode of speech, in his head, as they read.

I'm sorry to learn of your hearing impairment; I assure you that most people hear 'should've' and 'should of' distinctly and differently, even in their heads, as they read.
 
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