I just want to get some clarity about the division of assets in a divorce. There are many stories in the Loving Wives category where the house was purchased by the man prior to marriage, and is the excluded from the assets that are divided.
Say the man purchases a house prior in his name only. At the time of the wedding, he owns 20% of the house, and the bank owns 80%. After 15 years, the house gets paid off. In the divorce, does the man get to claim the entire home as an asset owned prior to marriage, or only the 20% owned by him at the time of the wedding?
I am not a divorce lawyer, so I don’t know how this works. I am trying to use this in a plot point for a story.
Say the man purchases a house prior in his name only. At the time of the wedding, he owns 20% of the house, and the bank owns 80%. After 15 years, the house gets paid off. In the divorce, does the man get to claim the entire home as an asset owned prior to marriage, or only the 20% owned by him at the time of the wedding?
I am not a divorce lawyer, so I don’t know how this works. I am trying to use this in a plot point for a story.