...regulation proposed by HHS Secretary Sebelius last year goes into effect this August 1.
The USSA Department of Health and Human Services (charged by the Executive Branch to implement the Affordable Health Care Act) has released an expanded list of prevention coverage for "women’s health and well-being", and since all of these services "have strong scientific evidence of their health benefits", all "must be covered and plans can no longer charge a patient a copayment, coinsurance or deductible for these services when they are delivered by a network provider."
If you click the link (http://www.hrsa.gov/womensguidelines/), you can read HHS's official announcement and take a look for yourself at the scope of the free expanded services now mandated by the federal government, with "sterilization procedures" "for all women with reproductive capacity" listed for the category, "Contraceptive methods and counseling".
Now, wiki tells me the average age of menarche (a female's first menstruation) is 12.5 in the US, but is normal anywhere from 8-16 years of age...
...so if I read this new HHS edict to include federal government-mandated free sterilization to an American girl as young as 8, would I be wrong?
And can anyone tell me how in the world sterilization can be called a "health benefit" for a normal, 8-year old little girl?
And why does government support the sterilization of 8-year old girls, anyway?
And someone clear-up Obamacare abortion for me, would ya?
Before Congressional passage of the ACA, the House passed its ACA bill with the inclusion of the Stupak-Pitts Amendment, which applied the Hyde Amendment abortion restrictions, which forbids certain Health and Human Services (HHS) funds from being used to pay for abortions, to Obamacare.
The Stupak-Pitts Amendment was necessary because the original bill did not include any blanket restriction on using taxpayer funds for abortion. Neither did the original Hyde Amendment suffice, since Obamacare creates lots of new pathways for sending money directly to various health care projects, bypassing HHS and the Hyde Amendment restrictions altogether.
But the Senate passed its version of the ACA with no abortion restrictions at all, and the Obama administration convinced the House to remove its anti-abortion language before the Congress voted on ACA. So, as a result, the ACA bill that the President signed into law has no restrictions against abortion in the bill itself.
Obama made a public display of signing an executive order that supposedly amends the health care legislation to preclude abortion funding...
...but the legal problem with that is that an executive order is not law and cannot amend legislation.
So, what's the real deal folks?
The USSA Department of Health and Human Services (charged by the Executive Branch to implement the Affordable Health Care Act) has released an expanded list of prevention coverage for "women’s health and well-being", and since all of these services "have strong scientific evidence of their health benefits", all "must be covered and plans can no longer charge a patient a copayment, coinsurance or deductible for these services when they are delivered by a network provider."
If you click the link (http://www.hrsa.gov/womensguidelines/), you can read HHS's official announcement and take a look for yourself at the scope of the free expanded services now mandated by the federal government, with "sterilization procedures" "for all women with reproductive capacity" listed for the category, "Contraceptive methods and counseling".
Now, wiki tells me the average age of menarche (a female's first menstruation) is 12.5 in the US, but is normal anywhere from 8-16 years of age...
...so if I read this new HHS edict to include federal government-mandated free sterilization to an American girl as young as 8, would I be wrong?
And can anyone tell me how in the world sterilization can be called a "health benefit" for a normal, 8-year old little girl?
And why does government support the sterilization of 8-year old girls, anyway?
And someone clear-up Obamacare abortion for me, would ya?
Before Congressional passage of the ACA, the House passed its ACA bill with the inclusion of the Stupak-Pitts Amendment, which applied the Hyde Amendment abortion restrictions, which forbids certain Health and Human Services (HHS) funds from being used to pay for abortions, to Obamacare.
The Stupak-Pitts Amendment was necessary because the original bill did not include any blanket restriction on using taxpayer funds for abortion. Neither did the original Hyde Amendment suffice, since Obamacare creates lots of new pathways for sending money directly to various health care projects, bypassing HHS and the Hyde Amendment restrictions altogether.
But the Senate passed its version of the ACA with no abortion restrictions at all, and the Obama administration convinced the House to remove its anti-abortion language before the Congress voted on ACA. So, as a result, the ACA bill that the President signed into law has no restrictions against abortion in the bill itself.
Obama made a public display of signing an executive order that supposedly amends the health care legislation to preclude abortion funding...
...but the legal problem with that is that an executive order is not law and cannot amend legislation.
So, what's the real deal folks?