Colonel Hogan
Madness
- Joined
- Sep 16, 2005
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Actually, my concern goes a bit deeper. I question the constitutional premise of the statutes authorizing the Special Counsel. When the Congress moves to limit or diminish the Art.II Section 1 plenary powers of the executive to manage the Executive branch by legislation instead of an amendment, it has the appearance of a violation of the separation of powers. has this statute been reviewed by the SCOTUS?
This is obviously because your reading of the law, not unlike KO elsewhere in this forum, is negligently cursory.
What on earth makes you think the Vesting Clause of Article II, Section 1 of the Constitution is "plenary" when Section 2 clearly distinguishes between Executive powers that are apparently plenary (those of Commander in Chief and the granting of Presidential pardons) and those that he shares upon "advice and consent of the Senate"?? Not to mention that portion of Section 2 that states: "Congress may by law vest the appointment of such inferior officers, as they think proper, in the President alone, in the courts of law, or in the heads of departments." In other words, they also "may not"!!
Excuse me???? That sounds "plenary" to you?
As to your question with regard to Supreme Court review of the Special Counsel statute, this is where your "cursory negligence" comes into play. As has been pointed out to you before, the original Independent Prosecutor statute was one that allowed for a Special Prosecutor to be legislated by Congress. A modicum of research would have revealed to you that the Constitutionality of that legislation (Ethics in Government Act of 1978) WAS, indeed, upheld by the Supreme Court in the 1988 case of Morrison v. Olson. The case was a 7 - 1 decision with Justice Scalia registering the lone dissent under the very separation of powers issue you embrace. He lost.
But that law has since been allowed to sunset. It no longer exists. The current law DOES NOT present a separation of powers issue, because the current statute does not IMPOSE a Special Counsel upon the Executive Branch BY either of the other branches of government. IT ALLOWS the Executive Branch in the person OF the Attorney General to APPLY to the "Division of the Court" to APPOINT a special counsel (see 28 USC § 593 - "Duties of the division of the court"). The various STATUTES (Title 28 USC Chapter 40) governing the appointment and jurisdiction of the Special Counsel are further codified as administrative RULES under Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). They are NOT, however, verbatim as to language, but they are legally presumed not to be in conflict unless contested in a court of law, i.e. the CFR DOJ rules governing dismissal of a Special Counsel is presumed to be in harmony despite the fact that the circumstances of such dismissal are NOT addressed with that same specificity under the applicable United States Code.
Since the DECISION to SEEK APPLICATION FOR a Special Counsel is VOLUNTARY on the part of the Executive Branch, one can hardly characterize the statutory jurisdiction and circumstances under which the President subjects himself as a Congressional usurpation of Executive power designed to "limit or diminish."
How is it that you blithely jump around Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations in search of a "conflict of interest," yet do not know this? Clearly because you don't understand the relationship between the Code of Federal Regulations and the United States Code. Here it is from the "Straight Dope" message board forum. Read and learn:
constantine is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2002
Re: USC (law) or CFR (rule)?
Originally posted by Jinx
What is the difference between a Federal Law (USC) and Federal Rule (CFR)? Let's use the Clean Water Act, for example. Congress passes some Law which I presume becomes part of the USC, correct? Also, once passed, the Act is the Law, correct? After this, is the regulatory agency (i.e.: EPA) now free to write the details of this law...and these are the Rules published in the CFR????
Very Confusing! How does this all work, and what is the technical difference (in simple terms) between a Law, Act, and Rule???
Sheepishly,
Jinx :smack
STANDARD DISCLAIMER: By posting to this thread, I am discussing an abstract question of law. I am not offering you legal advice. If you are motivated by anything other than idle curiosity, you should consult an attorney licensed to practice law in your jurisdiction. I am not your lawyer. You are not my client.
Now on to your question.
Under the Constitution, the legislative powers of the United States are vested in Congress. U.S. Const., Article I, Section I. Congress exercises this power when it enacts "statutes" a.k.a. "acts," a.k.a. "laws." Laws (a.k.a. "statutes" or "acts") validly enacted by Congress have the force of law (i.e. the Courts will enforce them), as long as they are consistent with the Constitution.
Congress also has the authority to delegate to administrative agencies--who are part of the executive branch--power to make rules. While nowadays we take this for granted (although not everyone is happy with it) in the early part of the Twentieth Century, especially during the FDR administration when the size and scope of administrative agencies grew enormously, this "delegation" by Congress was extremely controversial. The essence of the objection was that it violated the separation of powers: Congress was supposed to pass laws, NOT the executive branch, and Congress could not delegate its legislative power to the executive branch. It's all very interesting (really) but it's a story for another time.
It is up to Congress to decide whether, and how much, rulemaking authority each agency should have. The Environmental Protection Agency, for example, has considerable authority to make rules related to, wait for it, protecting the environment. These rules (aka regulations) promulgated (not "enacted") by the agency are published in the Code of Federal Regulations. These rules have the force of law so long as they do not contradict statutes passed by Congress. (Note the parallel with the principle that statutes are valid so long as they are consistent with the Constitution.) This principle may sound simple, but in fact armies of lawyers spend their careers arguing about whether, when and how a certain regulation does or does not contradict a certain statute.
So, here's how it goes in the example you mentioned. Congress passes the Clean Water Act. This act will then be codified in the US Code. BTW the codification does not happen immediately, BUT the act has the force of law as soon as of its effective date, whether it has been codified or not. Codification just makes it easier to look up.
Under the Clean Water Act, Congress explicitly grants the EPA authority to promulgate rules in order to enforce the act. The EPA then goes through a process (called notice and comment rule making) of formulating these rules. These rules are published in the Code of Federal Regulations, and "have the force of law."
When lawyers set to arguing before a Court about who did or did not violate the law, they will usually wind up citing relevant statutes (enacted by Congress) and relevant rules (promulgated by an administrative agency.) In practice, most of the time when you cite a federal statute, it is in the US Code, but sometimes its too new, so you have to cite to the actual Public Law Number (and that is a pain in the rear). As far as I know, all regulations are always published in the CFR.
On rare occasions, a Court will find that there is a contradiction between a statute and a regulation, and in that case, it will hold that the statute trumps the regulation, and the regulation is invalid. (There is an even further wrinkle: the Supreme Court has said that under certain circumstances, Courts should defer to an administrative agency's interpretation of statutes related to that agency, and thus to the agency's interpretation of whether its own rules are consistent with those statutes. Again, that's another story for another time.)
To sum up, the hierarchy goes
1) Constitution;
2) Statutes enacted by Congress under the power granted to it by the Constitution (usually but not always these statutes are codified in the USC); and
3) Regulations promulgated by agencies under power granted to them by Congress (these rules or regulations are published in the CFR).
http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/showthread.php?t=201341
And, yes, the objections of FDR and Rightgourd notwithstanding, the hierarchy of Constitution over USC over CFR has long been upheld by the United States Supreme Court in an entire shitload of cases far too numerous to mention. It is the veritable composition of Constitutional case law.