Grammar Police- are you guilty of any of these?

[red_rose]

do'nt u lickm y flaeower?

Oh, scy... you know I'll always lick your flower.

 

[Unclebill]

As far as the "He's got" thing, the "He's" is a contraction for "he has" and "has got" is almost redundant.

As to forte, my dictionary gives three pronunciations: two one-syllable, one with a caret above the "o", the other with a long "o" and the last two-syllables with a caret above the "o" and the long "a" sound at the end.

Originally posted by BustyTheClown
You could very well be right about the validity of my suggestions -- sometimes I go a little linguistics crazy... But do you know anyone who actually pronounces the "r"s in question in "February" and "prostrate"? Lol maybe I'm just from an uneducated part of the States, but I doI tell my charges that I use "he" in one paragraph, and then "she" in the next, switching off paragraph by paragraph.n't think I ever have...

Actually, I do pronounce February correctly. And prostate and prostrate are two entirely different words worthy of proper pronunciation to assure accurate communication.

For Cheyenne's benefit, let's be clear: PROSTATE has one "R"; PROSTRATE has two "R's".

And, belive it or not, BRUNG has actually made its way into the dictionary. Its definition is introduced by the phrase Usage problem and it is offered as a colloquialism ". . . in many areas, even among educated speakers, but it is not acceptable for use in formal writing."

Originally posted by SpaceToast
I tell my charges that I use "he" in one paragraph, and then "she" in the next, switching off paragraph by paragraph. . .

What I was taught seems much more intelligent and sane than trying to be all things to all people. When I went to school, the male pronoun was the default when gender was unknown or inconsequential. For example, "man" can refere to a male human, a human of unknown gender or to all of mankind generically.

The idea of gender correctness is a precursor of PC which is the precursor to the Thought Police. I thought it was stupid when I first encountered it as a teenager and consider it worse than stupid now.

For red_rose, don't you think all our English pronouns are genderless except the third person singular? First and second person singular pronouns are gender associated by knowing the gender of the person to whom it refers. But if that gender is unknown, none specifically is implied, is it? Same with all plural forms, too, eh?