SubbieHubbie2
Experienced
- Joined
- Mar 5, 2005
- Posts
- 37
Some of the reading I've done around the BDSM area (that claimed to be research and gave stats if I remember correctly, not that that guarantees anything) claimed that whether a woman is dominant or submissive in a heterosexual relationship, it is for the pleasure of the man not the woman herself. Is this true? It doesn't make sense to me, so I thought I'd ask the experts.