Britwitch
Classically curvy
- Joined
- Apr 23, 2004
- Posts
- 23,086
This is what is stated in the book:
'Consent of the victim is any voluntary yielding of will of the victim causing him/her to agree to the act of the offending party. This defense has several elements. FIRST: the victim must be capable of giving consent. Excludes kids, the insane, the mentally defective. SECOND: the offense must be a "consentable" crime. Excludes murder, rape, etc. Some crimes consent cannot be given for. THIRD: the consent cannot be obtained by fraud. FOURTH: the person giving consent must have the authority to do so.'
I might be wrong, but what I'm getting from this is one must 'be a victim.' In a case of prostitution, how is either a victim? The man consented to paying her for sex (Solicitation), the woman consents to be paid for sex (prostitution). Both committed a crime and can be prosecuted, regardless of consent.
So more along the lines of blackmail?
The victim agreed to commit the crime while acting under duress.
ETA: Like being car jacked and forced to speed. Crappy example but...there you go.