renard_ruse
Break up Amazon
- Joined
- Aug 30, 2007
- Posts
- 16,094
Women average lower salary than men "proves" what exactly?
Femanists (of both sexes) like to incessantly point out that "women still make a lower average salary than men." They often point to a figure of roughly 70% on the dollar vs. the average man's earnings. This is apparently supposed to "prove" that there is some sort of discrimination or generalized victimhood of all females in today's society. Yet, it proves nothing of the sort.
First off, let's even assume the 70% number is not just pulled out of someone's butt and for sake of argument is accurate. So? How does it "prove" any "victimhood" whatsoever even if it were true? In the US, and nearly all other post-industrial countries (if not most countries in general) there are laws that require "equal pay" for the same job with the same experience. Sexual discrimination has been highly illegal for over 40 years. A majority of people in America today weren't even alive when it was even legal to sexually discriminate in pay (and certainly the vast majority of people of working age today were not alive in such times).
Clearly there is no discrimination in actual pay for the same work and if discrimination can be proven multi-gazillion dollar lawsuits are quickly filed by myriad government agencies and private lawyers. In fact, any potential suspicion of such discrimination would result in a feeding frenzy between government fair employement agencies at federal, state, and local levels, and countless private employment lawyers all wanting to file the case for the alleged victim(s). In short, a woman thus dicriminated against would pretty much be set for life on easy street.
Femanists (of both sexes) like to incessantly point out that "women still make a lower average salary than men." They often point to a figure of roughly 70% on the dollar vs. the average man's earnings. This is apparently supposed to "prove" that there is some sort of discrimination or generalized victimhood of all females in today's society. Yet, it proves nothing of the sort.
First off, let's even assume the 70% number is not just pulled out of someone's butt and for sake of argument is accurate. So? How does it "prove" any "victimhood" whatsoever even if it were true? In the US, and nearly all other post-industrial countries (if not most countries in general) there are laws that require "equal pay" for the same job with the same experience. Sexual discrimination has been highly illegal for over 40 years. A majority of people in America today weren't even alive when it was even legal to sexually discriminate in pay (and certainly the vast majority of people of working age today were not alive in such times).
Clearly there is no discrimination in actual pay for the same work and if discrimination can be proven multi-gazillion dollar lawsuits are quickly filed by myriad government agencies and private lawyers. In fact, any potential suspicion of such discrimination would result in a feeding frenzy between government fair employement agencies at federal, state, and local levels, and countless private employment lawyers all wanting to file the case for the alleged victim(s). In short, a woman thus dicriminated against would pretty much be set for life on easy street.
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