Marquis
Jack Dawkins
- Joined
- Jul 9, 2002
- Posts
- 10,462
If a tort is committed against a submissive party, who is eligible to receive damages; the sub or the owning Dominant?
If an intentional tort is committed by a submissive party, who is the responsible party?
I say subs are essentially chattel, devoid of volition other than the transposed intent of their Dominant party, and conversely any damage done to them may be claimed only by the Dominant, at his/her discretion.
Any dissenting opinions?
If an intentional tort is committed by a submissive party, who is the responsible party?
I say subs are essentially chattel, devoid of volition other than the transposed intent of their Dominant party, and conversely any damage done to them may be claimed only by the Dominant, at his/her discretion.
Any dissenting opinions?