Subs = Chattel?

Marquis

Jack Dawkins
Joined
Jul 9, 2002
Posts
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If a tort is committed against a submissive party, who is eligible to receive damages; the sub or the owning Dominant?

If an intentional tort is committed by a submissive party, who is the responsible party?


I say subs are essentially chattel, devoid of volition other than the transposed intent of their Dominant party, and conversely any damage done to them may be claimed only by the Dominant, at his/her discretion.


Any dissenting opinions?
 
Obviously it all depends on your interpretation of submissive/pet/slave.
And where your level of control and responsibilities lie.

Where I live, if my dog injures someone, I am responsible.Even if s/he is protecting me or our house.

If my dog is on his/her own and gets injured and needs vetinary care, as s/he was not under my control at the time, I am responsible.

If s/he was on a lead and under my control when s/he was injured (like on a footpath, or in a park) the other party is responsible if you can prove them at fault.

If someone complains, either verbal or written, about my dog ( say in barking disputes);and I prove their complaints to be false, I could not take them to court for libel or slander on my pets behalf.
 
Ms. Killishandra here, attorney specializing in intellectual property rights. I represent intelligent property and their Dominants. ;)

Your Honor, in regards to this case, I call for the immediate expulsion of Mr. X from the courtroom, on the grounds that he is obviously unqualified for representation. This is evident by his misuse of the term "sub" which does not, in fact, denote "owned" property. Were Mr. X more familiar with past precedents or had he done his research, he would concur with me that the owning of intellectual property refers to a "slave" and not simply a submissive. It is glaringly obvious that Mr. X has no familiarity or working knowledge of BDSM and therefore is more interested in charging lien from corrupt Dominants than providing beneficial and fair legal advice to the parties involved.
 
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Killishandra said:
Ms. Killishandra here, attorney specializing in intellectual property rights. I represent intelligent property and their Dominants. ;)

Your Honor, in regards to this case, I call for the immediate expulsion of Mr. X from the courtroom, on the grounds that he is obviously unqualified for representation. This is evident by his misuse of the term "sub" which does not, in fact, denote "owned" property. Were Mr. X more familiar with past precedents or had he done his research, he would concur with me that the owning of intellectual property refers to a "slave" and not simply a submissive. It is glaringly obvious that Mr. X has no familiarity or working knowledge of BDSM and therefore is more interested in charging lien from corrupt Dominants than providing beneficial and fair legal advice to the parties involved.


You are to be held in contempt of court. Bailiff, bring the shackles.
 
landcruisergal said:
Obviously it all depends on your interpretation of submissive/pet/slave.
And where your level of control and responsibilities lie.

Where I live, if my dog injures someone, I am responsible.Even if s/he is protecting me or our house.

If my dog is on his/her own and gets injured and needs vetinary care, as s/he was not under my control at the time, I am responsible.

If s/he was on a lead and under my control when s/he was injured (like on a footpath, or in a park) the other party is responsible if you can prove them at fault.

If someone complains, either verbal or written, about my dog ( say in barking disputes);and I prove their complaints to be false, I could not take them to court for libel or slander on my pets behalf.


I think these laws would hold binding precedent for any case involving a sub.
 
Next question.

Should you be allowed to take out a loan or mortgage, secured by your submissive?

I think if you failed to make appropriate payments, you would retain title of your submissive, but lienholder would have exclusive access to the orifice agreed upon in the contract. If payments were to be completely remiss, the lending party would have the right to foreclose on the submissive, and auction him/her off to recover damages.
 
I can see you are giving your law classes much thought Marquis. ;)

Am curious - what type of law are you interested in?

~kierae :rose:
 
I'm too busy laughing at your Av to answer any questions.
 
ohhhhhhhhkaaaaaaaaaaayyyyyyyyyy

as a slave...AND an adult here....(52)

if i do anything wrong..primarily it reflects on my Ms...but "I" myself answer-up for it...

wolf
 
Kierae said:
I can see you are giving your law classes much thought Marquis. ;)

Am curious - what type of law are you interested in?

~kierae :rose:


Are there many kinds? :eek:


I thought they just give you a suit and a briefcase upon graduation and you just start suing people.
 
Marquis said:
If a tort is committed against a submissive party, who is eligible to receive damages; the sub or the owning Dominant?

If an intentional tort is committed by a submissive party, who is the responsible party?


I say subs are essentially chattel, devoid of volition other than the transposed intent of their Dominant party, and conversely any damage done to them may be claimed only by the Dominant, at his/her discretion.


Any dissenting opinions?

Master takes any and all responsibility for my misdeeds and I get to keep any cash settlements for wrongs against me....that's fair, right? :devil:
 
Marquis said:
Next question.

Should you be allowed to take out a loan or mortgage, secured by your submissive?

I think if you failed to make appropriate payments, you would retain title of your submissive, but lienholder would have exclusive access to the orifice agreed upon in the contract. If payments were to be completely remiss, the lending party would have the right to foreclose on the submissive, and auction him/her off to recover damages.

This is entirely on the value of the submissive. You could still lose the property you took the loan out for in the first place.
I think a hire purchase or vendor finance agreement would be wiser; using the submissive as part payment or bond would be a safer option or you may be left without sub or property.
You would be too dependant upon the will of the submissive, who may deliberately devalue herself, by behavior or self neglect...
 
landcruisergal said:
You would be too dependant upon the will of the submissive, who may deliberately devalue herself, by behavior or self neglect...


Well if she did it at the right time of year you could use it as a tax write-off!
 
Marquis said:
Well if she did it at the right time of year you could use it as a tax write-off!

Claiming depreciation of existing equipment/property? Put in a claim for that, then sell her yourself and write her off as a complete loss the following year.
Have you got said sub insured by any chance?
 
landcruisergal said:
Claiming depreciation of existing equipment/property? Put in a claim for that, then sell her yourself and write her off as a complete loss the following year.
Have you got said sub insured by any chance?


Hmmm.... I'll have to think about that.
 
vamplawyer said:

I agree. The DA's sentancing recomendation is Saturday night, without law books with high doeses of booze and sex.

Don't forget the loud pounding music and dance...
 
First years crack me up.

It will get better after the first year. . .maybe I can make it better for you?

;)
 
OceanGoddess said:
First years crack me up.

It will get better after the first year. . .maybe I can make it better for you?

;)


Send me case briefs for Contracts?
 
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