ok, so maybe I missed some other discussion of this, but I would love to know what people think about this - an article in yesterday's New York Times details a study in which the researchers allegedly found that bisexual orientation does not really exist, at least in men. The study involved showing erotic videos to men who had identified themselves as gay, straight, or bisexual, and measuring their arousal response. The videos featured either exclusively women or exclusively men. The results showed that men who identified as bi didn't actually have arousal when looking at both types of videos. Mostly, they were "aroused" only by the videos of men, leading the researchers to conclude that they were actually gay.
So my questions:
What do you think of the conclusion that men who identify themselves as bi are actually gay, but are trying to kid themselves that they also like women?
Is it possible, as some of the self-identified bi men reported, that they are romantically interested only in women (with a corresponding interest in having sex with women), but also feel a need to have sex with men?
Do you think that the showing of videos featuring only men and only women is a flaw in the study? It occurs to me that a man who is bi might well have been aroused by viewing women and men together, but that mere lesbian action could have left the same man less than aroused.
So my questions:
What do you think of the conclusion that men who identify themselves as bi are actually gay, but are trying to kid themselves that they also like women?
Is it possible, as some of the self-identified bi men reported, that they are romantically interested only in women (with a corresponding interest in having sex with women), but also feel a need to have sex with men?
Do you think that the showing of videos featuring only men and only women is a flaw in the study? It occurs to me that a man who is bi might well have been aroused by viewing women and men together, but that mere lesbian action could have left the same man less than aroused.