For those who believe the Supreme Court regularly exceeds its authority

Colonel Hogan

Madness
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The premise of the thread title is aptly articulated by a post from JAMESBJOHNSON in another thread earlier today, to wit:

“The fags on the Supreme Court opened a Pandora's box with the same-sex decision. They aren't the supreme legal authority for anything, they render opinions, and most of the time we go along with them, tho Presidents like Andrew Jackson and Abe Lincoln defied SCOTUS opinions.

The entire compliance thang rests upon Marbury vs Madison, where Jefferson accepted John Marshall's opinion of a cause favorable to Jefferson.”

The argument that the validity of a law or judicial order is dependent on a handful of those who might openly defy it is as vile as the scofflaws themselves, be they common criminals or Presidents or other elected officials, down to the lowliest of county clerks.

Be that as it may, JamesB is once again in error – at least with regard to Jefferson’s precise attitude toward the Supreme Court’s unanimous decision in Marbury. Here is a recollection of the events which Jefferson wrote some 27 years after the fact in 1830, though he had expressed his displeasure with the ruling on several other occasions far earlier:

“I found them (federal judicial commissions) on the table of the department of State, on my entrance to office, and forbade their delivery. Marbury, named in one of them, applied to the Supreme Court for a Mandamus to the Secretary of State (Mr. Madison), to deliver the commission intended for him. The Court determined at once that, being an original process, they had no cognizance of it; and there the question before them was ended. But the Chief Justice went on to lay down what the law would be, had they jurisdiction of the case; to wit, that they should command the delivery. The object was clearly to instruct any other court, having the jurisdiction, what they should do, if Marbury should apply to them. Besides the impropriety of this gratuitous interference, could anything exceed the perversion of law? …… Yet this case of Marbury and Madison is continually cited by bench and bar, as if it were settled law, without any animadversion on its being a merely obiter dissertation of the Chief Justice.

It may be impractical to lay down any general formula of words which will decide at once, and with precision, in every case, this limit of jurisdiction. But there are two canons which will guide us safely in most cases. 1. The capital and leading object of the constitution was, to leave with the States all authorities which respected their own citizens only,…. 2. On every question of construction, carry ourselves back to the time when the constitution was adopted, recollect the spirit manifested in the debates, and instead of trying what meaning may be squeezed out of the text, or invented against it, conform to the probable one in which it was passed.”

Memoir, Correspondence, and Miscellanies, from the Papers of Thomas Jefferson, Volume 4 edited by Thomas Jefferson Randolph, (1830), p. 372

So Jefferson was a “Tenther” and a Constitutional “originalist,” but he was no fan of the principle of wide scale judicial review endorsed by Marbury.

But there is a nagging problem regarding both positions with respect to the principle of judicial review.

Among the powers which the 10th Amendment would necessarily concede as being “delegated…by the Constitution” to the United States and “prohibited by it” to the States is embodied in the Supremacy Clause of Article Six which states in part “This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States … shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the constitution or laws of any state to the contrary notwithstanding.“

I believe that language speaks with unmistakable clarity with respect to 10th Amendment powers “reserved to the States respectively, or to the people” vis-à-vis the Constitution and/or the U. S. Congress.

What neither the 10th Amendment nor the Supremacy Clause does, however, is provide direction on how to resolve potential legal conflicts arising from federal legislation passed by Congress when that legislation, or the actions of government officials, are arguably in violation of the delegated powers, prohibitions and restrictions contained in the Constitution. It is no help to assert that that which is not prohibited is legislatively allowed – especially with respect to a federal legislature RESTRICTED TO a finite list of enumerated powers.

That legal complexity is only compounded if the case before the bar involves deprivation of a so-called “natural right,” almost universally recognized to exist, but without any existing affirmative statutory authority. The staunchest Federalists arguing against inclusion of the Bill of Rights in the Constitution acknowledged the existence of “natural rights,” the exhaustive scope of which, defied specific enumeration within that supplementary document.

The question then is left hanging: How would a Congressional legislative infringement of a natural right be adjudicated, if not by a federal court of law, and, how would said court reference a given ruling in favor of a petitioner, but by speculative language not in any way directly supported by (obviously) absent codification? Answer: In a manner not at all seemingly dissimilar to the speculative judicial authority alleged by Marshall in Marbury.

But is it really speculative?

In fact, the argument for judicial review power by the judiciary is far stronger than that for “natural rights” enjoyed by “the people” (or at least until so referenced by the Ninth and 10th Amendments). At least Marshall had the Constitutional language of Article III which defined and divided the Supreme Court’s authority in terms of original and appellate jurisdiction and the scope of that authority in both instances. In its most common exercise of appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court’s Constitutional authority is unarguable: “…the Supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.” Here we have language that produces the OPPOSITE effect of that in Article I. Jurisdiction “as to Law and Fact” which is NOT legislatively prohibited, excepted or regulated by Congress IS, quite pointedly, Constitutionally proscribed.

And in response to the oh-so-frequent protest that judicial review is a power nowhere granted by or within the Constitution, we simply refer BACK to that Article III language and cite the LACK of Congressional “EXCEPTION” to judicial review as well as pose the unanswered question of what “jurisdiction as to Law” means, if in fact, it is not blindingly synonymous with Marshall’s uncompromising declaration that “It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department to say what the law is. Those who apply the rule to particular cases, must of necessity expound and interpret that rule. If two laws conflict with each other, the courts must decide on the operation of each.” There is really no better description as to what "jurisdiction as to LAW" could reasonably mean.

Nowhere have I seen this analysis of Article III language with respect to Marbury directly undertaken. I would be obliged, but amazed, if anyone here can provide a link to such substantive discussion.

In closing, reference must be made to Jefferson’s advocacy for reliance upon “originalism” as a remedy for questions of Constitutional construction. As Justice Antonin Scalia has said, “Originalism isn’t perfect. But it beats the other alternatives.”

But it is also not dispositive. It does not complete a sound legal analysis. It only appropriately begins it. Jefferson also apparently believed that hours, if not days, of colloquial oral debate of that period would somehow transcend the subsequent decades upon decades, and its full context be accurately communicated by the written transcript that recorded it. Apparently, he gave little thought to the “original intent” of legislators whose views might have been shaped by the unrecorded discussions in the cloakrooms and offices of the Capitol, and whether the full documented record would survive to the succeeding generations which might require it.

But by Jefferson’s own standards, the framer’s attitude toward judicial review was mixed. As many knowledgeable scholars favored it, as did those who were opposed. And by Jefferson’s own admission as noted above, by 1830 the consensus was that it was “settled law.”

In any event, his criticism that Marshall’s ruling was unnecessary dicta is not without foundation. A simple ruling noting a lack of the Court’s jurisdiction to issue the sought after mandamus would have been sufficient. It would also be preferable if "what the law IS" did not change with unseemly frequency or was dependent upon the judicial philosophy of the members of the Supreme Court. But the substance of Marbury remains above reproach. Though arguably premature in 1803, that substantive ruling would have ultimately proved necessary and inevitable.

And it remains so today, as is its status as “settled law.”
 
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Threads like these really make me wish I'd have gone on doing law.

I may not agree with you on all things, Colonel, but I will say that you teach me more than most poster. Thanks.
 
Threads like these really make me wish I'd have gone on doing law.

I may not agree with you on all things, Colonel, but I will say that you teach me more than most poster. Thanks.

Agreed. Except the continuing law thing. It's a shame AJ didn't just tell Colonel he appreciated the schooling in Ishtard's Anchor Baby thread and moved on.
 
Threads like these really make me wish I'd have gone on doing law.

I may not agree with you on all things, Colonel, but I will say that you teach me more than most poster. Thanks.

Sometimes I wish I had done the same. Instead, I opted to take it up as a hobby.

And you're welcome!
 
Jefferson regarding Marbury v. Madison:

"You seem to consider the judges as the ultimate arbiters of all constitutional questions; a very dangerous doctrine indeed, and one which would place us under the despotism of an oligarchy. Our judges are as honest as other men, and not more so. They have, with others, the same passions for party, for power, and the privilege of their corps.... Their power [is] the more dangerous as they are in office for life, and not responsible, as the other functionaries are, to the elective control. The Constitution has erected no such single tribunal, knowing that to whatever hands confided, with the corruptions of time and party, its members would become despots. It has more wisely made all the departments co-equal and co-sovereign within themselves."
 
Jefferson regarding Marbury v. Madison:

"You seem to consider the judges as the ultimate arbiters of all constitutional questions; a very dangerous doctrine indeed, and one which would place us under the despotism of an oligarchy. Our judges are as honest as other men, and not more so. They have, with others, the same passions for party, for power, and the privilege of their corps.... Their power [is] the more dangerous as they are in office for life, and not responsible, as the other functionaries are, to the elective control. The Constitution has erected no such single tribunal, knowing that to whatever hands confided, with the corruptions of time and party, its members would become despots. It has more wisely made all the departments co-equal and co-sovereign within themselves."

For all his opposition to Marbury, Jefferson had no specific answer as to how constitutional questions were to be adjudicated in a court of law. Were it left to Jefferson and other opponents of judicial review, we would be hamstrung by the resulting legislative and judicial impasse as described by Marshall:

"Those then who controvert the principle that the constitution is to be considered, in court, as a paramount law, are reduced to the necessity of maintaining that courts must close their eyes on the constitution, and see only the law.

This doctrine would subvert the very foundation of all written constitutions. It would declare that an act, which, according to the principles and theory of our government, is entirely void, is yet, in practice, completely obligatory. It would declare, that if the legislature shall do what is expressly forbidden, such act, notwithstanding the express prohibition, is in reality effectual. It would be giving to the legislature a practical and real omnipotence with the same breath which professes to restrict their powers within narrow limits. It is prescribing limits, and declaring that those limits may be passed at pleasure."

If Marshall is in error in that analysis, then it remains a theoretically easy matter for you and others to identify the judicial mechanism by which the federal courts and the Supreme Court can rectify the passage of legislation in violation of the Constitution without committing the unlawful abuse of judicial power known as "judicial review."

Do tell.
 
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For all his opposition to Marbury, Jefferson had no specific answer as to how constitutional questions were to be adjudicated in a court of law. Were it left to Jefferson and other opponents of judicial review, we would be hamstrung by the resulting legislative and judicial impasse as described by Marshall:

It's my opinion the Court has overstepped its authority repeatedly. I'm sure Jefferson would agree with me. What should be done about it is the problem. There is no easy solution.
 
The premise of the thread title is aptly articulated by a post from JAMESBJOHNSON in another thread earlier today, to wit:



The argument that the validity of a law or judicial order is dependent on a handful of those who might openly defy it is as vile as the scofflaws themselves, be they common criminals or Presidents or other elected officials, down to the lowliest of county clerks.

Be that as it may, JamesB is once again in error – at least with regard to Jefferson’s precise attitude toward the Supreme Court’s unanimous decision in Marbury. Here is a recollection of the events which Jefferson wrote some 27 years after the fact in 1830, though he had expressed his displeasure with the ruling on several other occasions far earlier:



So Jefferson was a “Tenther” and a Constitutional “originalist,” but he was no fan of the principle of wide scale judicial review endorsed by Marbury.

But there is a nagging problem regarding both positions with respect to the principle of judicial review.

Among the powers which the 10th Amendment would necessarily concede as being “delegated…by the Constitution” to the United States and “prohibited by it” to the States is embodied in the Supremacy Clause of Article Six which states in part “This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States … shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the constitution or laws of any state to the contrary notwithstanding.“

I believe that language speaks with unmistakable clarity with respect to 10th Amendment powers “reserved to the States respectively, or to the people” vis-à-vis the Constitution and/or the U. S. Congress.

What neither the 10th Amendment nor the Supremacy Clause does, however, is provide direction on how to resolve potential legal conflicts arising from federal legislation passed by Congress when that legislation, or the actions of government officials, are arguably in violation of the delegated powers, prohibitions and restrictions contained in the Constitution. It is no help to assert that that which is not prohibited is legislatively allowed – especially with respect to a federal legislature RESTRICTED TO a finite list of enumerated powers.

That legal complexity is only compounded if the case before the bar involves deprivation of a so-called “natural right,” almost universally recognized to exist, but without any existing affirmative statutory authority. The staunchest Federalists arguing against inclusion of the Bill of Rights in the Constitution acknowledged the existence of “natural rights,” the exhaustive scope of which, defied specific enumeration within that supplementary document.

The question then is left hanging: How would a Congressional legislative infringement of a natural right be adjudicated, if not by a federal court of law, and, how would said court reference a given ruling in favor of a petitioner, but by speculative language not in any way directly supported by (obviously) absent codification? Answer: In a manner not at all seemingly dissimilar to the speculative judicial authority alleged by Marshall in Marbury.

But is it really speculative?

In fact, the argument for judicial review power by the judiciary is far stronger than that for “natural rights” enjoyed by “the people” (or at least until so referenced by the Ninth and 10th Amendments). At least Marshall had the Constitutional language of Article III which defined and divided the Supreme Court’s authority in terms of original and appellate jurisdiction and the scope of that authority in both instances. In its most common exercise of appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court’s Constitutional authority is unarguable: “…the Supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.” Here we have language that produces the OPPOSITE effect of that in Article I. Jurisdiction “as to Law and Fact” which is NOT legislatively prohibited, excepted or regulated by Congress IS, quite pointedly, Constitutionally proscribed.

And in response to the oh-so-frequent protest that judicial review is a power nowhere granted by or within the Constitution, we simply refer BACK to that Article III language and cite the LACK of Congressional “EXCEPTION” to judicial review as well as pose the unanswered question of what “jurisdiction as to Law” means, if in fact, it is not blindingly synonymous with Marshall’s uncompromising declaration that “It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department to say what the law is. Those who apply the rule to particular cases, must of necessity expound and interpret that rule. If two laws conflict with each other, the courts must decide on the operation of each.” There is really no better description as to what "jurisdiction as to LAW" could reasonably mean.

Nowhere have I seen this analysis of Article III language with respect to Marbury directly undertaken. I would be obliged, but amazed, if anyone here can provide a link to such substantive discussion.

In closing, reference must be made to Jefferson’s advocacy for reliance upon “originalism” as a remedy for questions of Constitutional construction. As Justice Antonin Scalia has said, “Originalism isn’t perfect. But it beats the other alternatives.”

But it is also not dispositive. It does not complete a sound legal analysis. It only appropriately begins it. Jefferson also apparently believed that hours, if not days, of colloquial oral debate of that period would somehow transcend the subsequent decades upon decades, and its full context be accurately communicated by the written transcript that recorded it. Apparently, he gave little thought to the “original intent” of legislators whose views might have been shaped by the unrecorded discussions in the cloakrooms and offices of the Capitol, and whether the full documented record would survive to the succeeding generations which might require it.

But by Jefferson’s own standards, the framer’s attitude toward judicial review was mixed. As many knowledgeable scholars favored it, as did those who were opposed. And by Jefferson’s own admission as noted above, by 1830 the consensus was that it was “settled law.”

In any event, his criticism that Marshall’s ruling was unnecessary dicta is not without foundation. A simple ruling noting a lack of the Court’s jurisdiction to issue the sought after mandamus would have been sufficient. It would also be preferable if "what the law IS" did not change with unseemly frequency or was dependent upon the judicial philosophy of the members of the Supreme Court. But the substance of Marbury remains above reproach. Though arguably premature in 1803, that substantive ruling would have ultimately proved necessary and inevitable.

And it remains so today, as is its status as “settled law.”

Doesn't it also point out the dangers when a Chief Justice's opinion can become "settled law". Even if he was correct.

It further points out the importance of the confirmation process. A process that has become more and more political .... In my lifetime at least.
 
It's my opinion the Court has overstepped its authority repeatedly. I'm sure Jefferson would agree with me. What should be done about it is the problem. There is no easy solution.

It's far worse than that. If the whole concept of "judicial review" has been a continual abuse of judicial power since 1803, then EVERY SUPREME COURT has overstepped its authority and there is clearly NO SOLUTION whatsoever.

Let's not minimize the problem.

Given the potential for members of one branch of government violating the law, either by robbing a bank or passing UNCONSTITUTIONAL legislation and signing it INTO LAW, another branch of government has to hold those potential law violators accountable.

Who do you think should do it?

Here's a hint: When officers of the court, including judges, are charged with a crime, guess where they are prosecuted.
 
It's far worse than that. If the whole concept of "judicial review" has been a continual abuse of judicial power since 1803, then EVERY SUPREME COURT has overstepped its authority and there is clearly NO SOLUTION whatsoever.

Let's not minimize the problem.

Given the potential for members of one branch of government violating the law, either by robbing a bank or passing UNCONSTITUTIONAL legislation and signing it INTO LAW, another branch of government has to hold those potential law violators accountable.

Who do you think should do it?

Here's a hint: When officers of the court, including judges, are charged with a crime, guess where they are prosecuted.

When one branch of government becomes superior to the other two, which is what has happened in this country, in my opinion, and the other two branches meekly accept their inferiority, which is also what has happened, in my opinion, that is a serious problem. The solution is not pleasant to consider.
 
It's far worse than that. If the whole concept of "judicial review" has been a continual abuse of judicial power since 1803, then EVERY SUPREME COURT has overstepped its authority and there is clearly NO SOLUTION whatsoever.

Let's not minimize the problem.

Given the potential for members of one branch of government violating the law, either by robbing a bank or passing UNCONSTITUTIONAL legislation and signing it INTO LAW, another branch of government has to hold those potential law violators accountable.

Who do you think should do it?

Here's a hint: When officers of the court, including judges, are charged with a crime, guess where they are prosecuted.

When the system becomes so corrupt that one set of crooks is judging another set of crooks, either nothing happens, there is a revolution or a coupe d'e tat.
 
Doesn't it also point out the dangers when a Chief Justice's opinion can become "settled law". Even if he was correct.

It further points out the importance of the confirmation process. A process that has become more and more political .... In my lifetime at least.

In a word, "no."

The Chief Justice's opinion does not become law. The opinion of the Court majority becomes law. This is NOT a nitpick. The Chief, or whoever authors that opinion, merely speaks for himself and the other members of that majority. And sometimes not sufficiently to prevent other members of the majority from authoring their own "concurrences" which expound on legal points they deem to be important.

The Supreme Court NEVER speaks with one voice -- even in decisions that are unanimous. That is a myth that gets propagated with the arguable poetry and passion of the language employed by an opinion's author.
 
It's far worse than that. If the whole concept of "judicial review" has been a continual abuse of judicial power since 1803, then EVERY SUPREME COURT has overstepped its authority and there is clearly NO SOLUTION whatsoever.

Let's not minimize the problem.

Given the potential for members of one branch of government violating the law, either by robbing a bank or passing UNCONSTITUTIONAL legislation and signing it INTO LAW, another branch of government has to hold those potential law violators accountable.

Who do you think should do it?

Here's a hint: When officers of the court, including judges, are charged with a crime, guess where they are prosecuted.

Depends. If it's a federal judge, impeachment proceedings are conducted in Congress just as if a President was being indicted.

Impeachments of Federal Judges
 
When one branch of government becomes superior to the other two, which is what has happened in this country, in my opinion, and the other two branches meekly accept their inferiority, which is also what has happened, in my opinion, that is a serious problem. The solution is not pleasant to consider.

Fine. Then all you have to do is articulate the manner in which THREE different COEQUAL branches of government can FLAWLESSLY hold the other two accountable UNDER THE LAW when members of either of the other two branches VIOLATE the law.

So far you haven't even made the attempt. Nor do I anticipate that you will.
 
Fine. Then all you have to do is articulate the manner in which THREE different COEQUAL branches of government can FLAWLESSLY hold the other two accountable UNDER THE LAW when members of either of the other two branches VIOLATE the law.

So far you haven't even made the attempt. Nor do I anticipate that you will.

Jefferson made no attempt, so I hope you don't really expect me to make one.
 
Depends. If it's a federal judge, impeachment proceedings are conducted in Congress just as if a President was being indicted.

Impeachments of Federal Judges

So, in the 212 years since the ruling in Marbury, why do you think not a single federal judge has been criminally convicted or impeached for committing the gross abuse of power known as judicial review?

Two centuries of cowardice by EVERY President and EVERY Congress is NOT a credible explanation.
 
So, in the 212 years since the ruling in Marbury, why do you think not a single federal judge has been criminally convicted or impeached for committing the gross abuse of power known as judicial review?

Two centuries of cowardice by EVERY President and EVERY Congress is NOT a credible explanation.

If you'd like me to argue for you, all you have to do is ask.
 
Jefferson made no attempt, so I hope you don't really expect me to make one.

Given 200 years of gum flapping over this alleged rape of the Constitution, I expect somebody to do so, and there seems to be a conspicuous dearth of volunteers with anything LIKE a workable plan.

I'm growing impatient.
 
It's not cowardice, it's consent. We, as a society, consent to the rule of law. If everyone started shooting their neighbor, there's really nothing the government could do about it.

Likewise, each branch of government executes it's responsibilities through it's consent. The Supreme Court has no enforcement authority (or means) to implement its rulings. It relies on the Executive to do that. Likewise, if the Executive fails to do that, the Legislative branch can remove the executive.

In a constitutional crisis the ultimate authority lies with the military but things would have to be pretty bad for that option to be exercised.
 
It's not cowardice, it's consent. We, as a society, consent to the rule of law. If everyone started shooting their neighbor, there's really nothing the government could do about it.

Likewise, each branch of government executes it's responsibilities through it's consent. The Supreme Court has no enforcement authority (or means) to implement its rulings. It relies on the Executive to do that. Likewise, if the Executive fails to do that, the Legislative branch can remove the executive.

In a constitutional crisis the ultimate authority lies with the military but things would have to be pretty bad for that option to be exercised.

And where one branch behaves so outrageously, one would expect that consent to be withheld and proactively addressed, as has been done repeatedly.

If judicial review actually constituted such an outrage, we should have seen it legislated out of existence by a Constitutional amendment long ago. The "consent" of the other two branches with regard to the exercise of this judicial authority is meaningful.

Meanwhile, judicial review itself IS the mechanism by which the Judicial Branch withholds ITS consent. And appropriately so.
 
And where one branch behaves so outrageously, one would expect that consent to be withheld and proactively addressed, as has been done repeatedly.

If judicial review actually constituted such an outrage, we should have seen it legislated out of existence by a Constitutional amendment long ago. The "consent" of the other two branches with regard to the exercise of this judicial authority is meaningful.

Meanwhile, judicial review itself IS the mechanism by which the Judicial Branch withholds ITS consent. And appropriately so.

Indeed
 
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