renard_ruse
Break up Amazon
- Joined
- Aug 30, 2007
- Posts
- 16,094
The ridiculous and unconstitutional doctrine of sexual harassment, which was concocted out of thin air by radical feminist university theorists in the 1970s, is a crock of non-sense on so many levels its hard to even contemplate. Where does one begin in fighting this faulty and destructive faux legal doctrine?
Well, how about at its source: that so-called sexual harassment is a form of workplace (or schoolyard) "sexual discrimination" which is the foundation from which the doctrine itself emanates?
The average person is probably unaware that the foundational legal basis for the banning of so-called sexual harassment in workplaces and elsewhere is that it violates Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act which prohibits discrimination based on sex (as in male or female) in certain circumstances. So how did we get from not hiring someone because of sex to the idea that one individual randomly being attracted to another individual is "discrimination."
Anyway, those who think I'm an "idiot" might be interested to find out, I'm not the only one who questions sex harassment laws (for example, Mercury14's statement that "just about everybody" blindly and wholeheartedly supports these laws as currently interpreted is simply not true). Even Alan "Turkeyshitz" Dershowitz, long a darling of much of the liberal left has challenged the doctrine, but lets leave that for another post. What I want to focus on here is whether so-called sexual harassment, as defined as "unwelcome sexual interest," is always a form of "discrimination" against a class of people based on their sex, or rather simply a misunderstanding between individuals. To add further credibility to the thread, since many of you think I'm an "idiot" I won't even offer my own opinions, but will cut and paste from another source.
Well, how about at its source: that so-called sexual harassment is a form of workplace (or schoolyard) "sexual discrimination" which is the foundation from which the doctrine itself emanates?
The average person is probably unaware that the foundational legal basis for the banning of so-called sexual harassment in workplaces and elsewhere is that it violates Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act which prohibits discrimination based on sex (as in male or female) in certain circumstances. So how did we get from not hiring someone because of sex to the idea that one individual randomly being attracted to another individual is "discrimination."
Anyway, those who think I'm an "idiot" might be interested to find out, I'm not the only one who questions sex harassment laws (for example, Mercury14's statement that "just about everybody" blindly and wholeheartedly supports these laws as currently interpreted is simply not true). Even Alan "Turkeyshitz" Dershowitz, long a darling of much of the liberal left has challenged the doctrine, but lets leave that for another post. What I want to focus on here is whether so-called sexual harassment, as defined as "unwelcome sexual interest," is always a form of "discrimination" against a class of people based on their sex, or rather simply a misunderstanding between individuals. To add further credibility to the thread, since many of you think I'm an "idiot" I won't even offer my own opinions, but will cut and paste from another source.